Is it from the derivation via the Boltzmann distribution? But the Boltzmann distribution does hold for vibrational motion.Why is the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution only applicable for translational not vibrational motion?vibrations are quantized.
so are translations (in a confined volume) - but the density of states is such that we can treat it as continious. Not so in vibrational case where difference is easily 3000 cm-1
2nd point: vibrations are bosons and bose-einstein statistics is more applicableWhy is the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution only applicable for translational not vibrational motion?I believe this paragraph has your answer:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Maxwell%E2%鈥?/a>Why is the Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution only applicable for translational not vibrational motion?Because Maxwell describes particle speeds in gases not kinetic theory
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